2024 Updated Verified CISSP Downloadable Printable Exam Dumps
The Ultimate ISC CISSP Dumps PDF Review
NEW QUESTION # 722
Which one of the following security areas is directly addressed by
Kerberos?
- A. Availability
- B. Frequency analysis
- C. Physical attacks
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
Explanation:
Kerberos directly addresses the confidentiality and also the
integrity of information.
* attacks such as frequency
analysis are not considered in the basic Kerberos implementation. In
addition, the Kerberos protocol does not directly address availability
issues. (Answer Availability.)
For answer "Physical attac", since the Kerberos TGS and the
authentication servers hold all the secret keys, these servers are
vulnerable to both physical attacks and attacks from malicious code.
In the Kerberos exchange, the client workstation temporarily holds
the client's secret key, and this key is vulnerable to compromise at
the workstation.
NEW QUESTION # 723
Lock picking is classified under which one of the following lock mechanism attacks?
- A. Manipulation
- B. Shimming
- C. Circumvention
- D. Illicit key
Answer: A
Explanation:
Lock picking is manipulation of the tumblers.
NEW QUESTION # 724
The following is not true:
- A. There has never been of problem of lost keys.
- B. The addition of a PIN keypad to the card reader was a solution to unreported card or lost card problem.
- C. Human guard is an inefficient and sometimes ineffective method of protecting resources.
- D. Since the early days of mankind humans have struggled with the problems of protecting assets.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is absolutely false, this problem can be seen almost anywhere. There have
always been trouble with the lost of keys. Some of those looses are more important than others,
its not the same to lost the key of the company safe box, that lost the key of you locker with that
contains your shoes.
This is obviously an incorrect statement, answer C is the one in here.
"Unfortunately, using security guards is not a perfect solution. There are numerous disadvantages
to deploying, maintaining, and relying upon security guards. Not all environments and facilities
support security guards. This may be due actual human incompatibility with the layout, design,
location, and construction of the facility. Not all security guards are themselves reliable.
Prescreening, bonding, and training does not guarantee that you won't end up with an ineffective
and unreliable security guard." Pg 646 Tittel: CISSP Guide.
NEW QUESTION # 725
Superscalar computer architecture is characterized by a:
- A. Computer using instructions that perform many operations per instruction.
- B. Processor that executes one instruction at a time.
- C. Computer using instructions that are simpler and require less clock cycles to execute.
- D. Processor that enables concurrent execution of multiple instructions in the same pipeline stage.
Answer: D
Explanation:
*Answer "Computer using instructions that perform many operations per instruction" is the definition of a complex instruction set computer.
*Answer "Computer using instructions that are simpler and require less clock cycles to execute" is the definition of a reduced instruction set computer.
*Answer "Processor that executes one instruction at a time" is the definition of a scalar processor.
NEW QUESTION # 726
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
Desktop computers in an organization were sanitized for re-use in an equivalent security environment. The data was destroyed in accordance with organizational policy and all marking and other external indications of the sensitivity of the data that was formerly stored on the magnetic drives were removed.
After magnetic drives were degaussed twice according to the product manufacturer's directions, what is the MOST LIKELY security issue with degaussing?
- A. Degausser products may not be properly maintained and operated.
- B. Commercial products often have serious weaknesses of the magnetic force available in the degausser product.
- C. Inadequate record keeping when sanitizing media.
- D. The inability to turn the drive around in the chamber for the second pass due to human error.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 727
Following a penetration test, what should an organization do FIRST?
- A. Ensure staff is trained in security.
- B. Review all security policies and procedures.
- C. Evaluate the problems identified in the test result.
- D. Determine if you need to conduct a full security assessment.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 728
The graph in Figure, which depicts the equation y 2 = x3 + ax + b,
denotes the:
Exhibit:
- A. ElGamal discrete logarithm problem
- B. Knapsack problem
- C. Elliptic curve and the elliptic curve discrete logarithm problem
- D. RSA Factoring problem
Answer: C
Explanation:
The elliptic curve is defined over a finite field comprised of real,
complex or rational numbers. The points on an elliptic curve form a
Group under addition. Multiplication (or
multiple additions) in an elliptic curve system is equivalent to modular exponentiation; thus, defining a discreet logarithm problem.
NEW QUESTION # 729
The Federal Sentencing Guidelines:
- A. Prohibit altering, damaging, or destroying information in a federal interest computer.
- B. Prohibit eavesdropping or the interception of message contents.
- C. Established a category of sensitive information called Sensitive But Unclassified (SBU).
- D. Hold senior corporate officers personally liable if their organizations do not comply with the law.
Answer: D
Explanation:
*Answer "Prohibit altering, damaging, or destroying information in a federal interest computer" is part of the US Computer Fraud and Abuse Act.
* Answer "Prohibit eavesdropping or the interception of message contents" is part of the
US Electronic Communications Privacy Act.
Answer "Established a category of sensitive information called Sensitive But Unclassified
(SBU)" is part of the US Computer Security Act.
NEW QUESTION # 730
Since disks and other magnetic media are only copies of the actual or original evidence, what type of evidence are they are often considered to represent?
- A. Irrelevant
- B. Secondary
- C. Hearsay
- D. Incomplete
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 731
What is called the type of access control where there are pairs of elements that have the least upper bound of values and greatest lower bound of values?
- A. Mandatory model
- B. Discretionary model
- C. Lattice model
- D. Rule model
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lattice-based access control provides an upper bound and lower bound of access capabilities for every subject and object relationship. Pg 156 Shon Harris All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide
NEW QUESTION # 732
With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing information security continuous monitoring (ISCM) solutions?
- A. Continuously without exception for all security controls
- B. At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control
- C. Before and after each change of the control
- D. Only during system implementation and decommissioning
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 733
With RAID Level 5 the spare drives that replace the failed drives are usually hot swappable, meaning the can be replaced on the server while the?
- A. System is centre and running.
- B. System is up and running.
- C. System is in-between and running.
- D. System is down and running.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is true, since RAID 5 uses parity to provide fault tolerance through the array, once of the disk in it can become corrupted, and you usually can just take it out without turning off the system (Hot SWAP) and plug a spare disk on the bay. Then the array will automatically begin to reconstruct the information in the new disk with the parity contained through the other disks in the array. This Hot Swap capability is usually present in enterprise servers that require high availability.
NEW QUESTION # 734
Which of the following is the primary security feature of a proxy server?
- A. Virus Detection
- B. Route blocking
- C. URL blocking
- D. Content filtering
Answer: D
Explanation:
In many organizations, the HTTP proxy is used as a means to implement content
filtering, for instance, by logging or blocking traffic that has been defined as, or is assumed to be
nonbusiness related for some reason.
Although filtering on a proxy server or firewall as part of a layered defense can be quite effective to
prevent, for instance, virus infections (though it should never be the only protection against
viruses), it will be only moderately effective in preventing access to unauthorized services (such as
certain remote-access services or file sharing), as well as preventing the download of unwanted
content. HTTP Tunneling.
HTTP tunneling is technically a misuse of the protocol on the part of the designer of such tunneling
applications. It has become a popular feature with the rise of the first streaming video and audio
applications and has been implemented into many applications that have a market need to bypass
user policy restrictions.
Usually, HTTP tunneling is applied by encapsulating outgoing traffic from an application in an
HTTP request and incoming traffic in a response. This is usually not done to circumvent security,
but rather, to be compatible with existing firewall rules and allow an application to function through
a firewall without the need to apply special rules, or additional configurations.
The following are incorrect choices:
Virus Detection A proxy is not best at detection malware and viruses within content. A antivirus
product would be use for that purpose.
URL blocking This would be a subset of Proxying, based on the content some URL's may be
blocked by the proxy but it is not doing filtering based on URL addresses only. This is not the
BEST answer.
Route blocking This is a function that would be done by Intrusion Detection and Intrusion
prevention system and not the proxy. This could be done by filtering devices such as Firewalls and
Routers as well. Again, not the best choice.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition
((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 6195-6201). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 735
What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?
- A. Data fiddling
- B. Salami techniques
- C. Data diddling
- D. Trojan horses
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 736
Who is accountable for the information within an Information System (IS)?
- A. Data owner
- B. System owner
- C. Data processor
- D. Security manager
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 737
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 738
Which combination of cryptographic algorithms are compliant with Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) Publication 140-2 for non-legacy systems?
- A. Diffie-hellman (DH) key exchange: DH (>=2048 bits)
Symmetric Key: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) < 128 bits
Digital Signature: Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA) (>=256 bits) - B. Diffie-hellman (DH) key exchange: DH (<= 1024 bits)
Symmetric Key: Blowfish
Digital Signature: Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) (>=2048 bits) - C. Diffie-hellman (DH) key exchange: DH (>=2048 bits)
Symmetric Key: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) > 128 bits
Digital Signature: Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) (1024 bits) - D. Diffie-hellman (DH) key exchange: DH (>=2048 bits)
Symmetric Key: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) > 128 bits
Digital Signature: Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) (>=2048 bits)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 739
Which of the following security controls might force an operator into collusion with personnel assigned organizationally within a different function in order to gain access to unauthorized data?
- A. Limiting the local access of operations personnel
- B. Job rotation of operations personnel
- C. Enforcing regular password changes
- D. Management monitoring of audit logs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Limiting the local access of operations personnel means that the operator will not be able to access the unauthorized data. Therefore, to gain access to the data, the operator would need to collude with someone who does have access to the data.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Job rotation (rotation of duties) is defined as the process of limiting the amount of time an operator is assigned to perform a security related task before being moved to a different task with a different security classification. This control lessens the opportunity for collusion between operators for fraudulent purposes.
However, the job the operator is currently performing does not necessarily mean that the operator cannot access the unauthorized data. This can only be assured by limiting the local access of operations personnel.
C: Management monitoring of audit logs is a detective control. It would not affect what data an operator has access to so it would have no effect on whether collusion would be required in order to gain access to unauthorized data.
D: Enforcing regular password changes does not affect what data an operator has access to so it would have no effect on whether collusion would be required in order to gain access to unauthorized data.
NEW QUESTION # 740
When referring to the data structures of a packet, the term Protocol Data Unit (PDU) is used, what is the proper term to refer to a single unit of TCP data at the transport layer?
- A. TCP segment.
- B. TCP frame.
- C. TCP datagram.
- D. TCP packet.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the OSI model layer 4 is the transport layer. In the TCP/IP model, Application Layer data is encapsulated in a Layer 4 TCP segment. That TCP segment is encapsulated in a Layer 3 IP packet. Data, segments, and packets are examples of Protocol Data Units (PDUs).
Incorrect Answers:
B: TCP datagrams is not a notion that is used in the TCP/IP model.
C: The TCP frame is at the Layer 2 Ethernet layer, not at the transport level which is layer 4.
D: A TCP packet is at the application layer, not at the transport level.
References:
Conrad, Eric, Seth Misenar and Joshua Feldman, CISSP Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Syngress, Waltham,
2012, p. 70
NEW QUESTION # 741
Which of the following statements pertaining to the trusted computing base (TCB) is false?
- A. A higher TCB rating will require that details of their testing procedures and documentation be reviewed with more granularity
- B. It addresses the level of security a system provides
- C. It originates from the Orange Book
- D. It includes hardware, firmware, and software
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 742
SQL commands do not include which of the following?
- A. Grant, Revoke
- B. Select, Update
- C. Add, Relist
- D. Delete, Insert
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are no such commands within the Structure Query Language (SQL).
SQL commands include Select, Update, Delete, Insert, Grant, Replace, Restore, and
Revoke to name only a few of the common one.
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186862.aspx
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 47.
and
http://www.sqlcommands.net/
and
http://www.cs.utexas.edu/~mitra/csFall2012/cs329/lectures/sql.html
NEW QUESTION # 743
A shared resource matrix is a technique commonly used to locate:
- A. Covert channels
- B. Malicious code
- C. Security flaws
- D. Trap doors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Analyzing resources of a system is one standard for locating covert channels because the basis of a covert channel is a shared resource.
The following properties must hold for a storage channel to exist:
1. Both sending and receiving process must have access to the same attribute of a shared object.
2. The sending process must be able to modify the attribute of the shared object.
3. The receiving process must be able to reference that attribute of the shared object.
4. A mechanism for initiating both processes and properly sequencing their respective accesses to the shared resource must exist.
Note: Similar properties for timing channel can be listed
The following answers are incorrect:
All other answers were not directly related to discovery of Covert Channels.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Auerbach Publications, Auerbach Publications (Test Series) - CRC Press LLC, Page No.
225
and
http://www.cs.ucsb.edu/~sherwood/cs290/papers/covert-kemmerer.pdf
and
http://www.cs.utexas.edu/~byoung/cs361/lecture16.pdf
and
http://www.cs.utexas.edu/~byoung/cs361/lecture16.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 744
The key benefits of a signed and encrypted e-mail include
- A. non-repudiation, confidentiality, and authorization.
- B. non-repudiation, authorization, and authentication.
- C. confidentiality, non-repudiation, and authentication.
- D. confidentiality, authentication, and authorization.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 745
Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?
- A. Parasitic
- B. Boot Sector
- C. Polymorphic
- D. Stealth
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Polymorphic virus produces varied but operational copies of itself in hopes of
evading anti-virus software.
The following answers are incorrect:
boot sector. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A boot sector virus attacks the boot
sector of a drive. It describes the type of attack of the virus and not the characteristics of its
composition.
parasitic. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A parasitic virus attaches itself to other
files but does not change its characteristics.
stealth. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A stealth virus attempts to hide changes of
the affected files but not itself.
NEW QUESTION # 746
......
Total Number of Questions in the ISC CISSP exam
The number of questions is 100-150.
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